po Franciszku = on behalf of Franciszek?

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anthox

Senior Member
English - Northeast US
Cześć wszystkim,

I'm translating a few old letters from a Polish family to their family in the US. Some are written by the daughter, Janina, and one is written by her father, Franciszek. I was confused for a bit because both Janina and Franciszek appear to refer to the same woman and her husband (recipients of the letters) as "siostro i szwagrze." Since the woman is Franciszek's sister, it would be Janina's aunt. I then noticed that Janina signed one letter as "Janina córka po Franciszku", with "córka" crossed out in the manuscript. Can I take this to mean that Janina wrote the letter, but she was dictating Franciszek's words (even though she uses feminine past-tense verb forms)?

Dziękuję bardzo.
 
  • Piotr_WRF

    Senior Member
    Polish, German
    Well, it doesn't make any sense. It doesn't mean on behalf of; it could be an old-fashioned way of saying daughter of Franciszek, but then why would córka be crossed out?
     

    Henares

    Senior Member
    Polish
    „Szwagier” is the husband of one’s sister, therefore it implies that Franciszek is the real author of the letters. He was dictating and the daughter was writing. We could interpret this “Janina córka po Franciszku" as “Janian (córka) spisywała PO Franciszku”.
     

    Tyskie

    New Member
    English (UK)
    Well, it doesn't make any sense. It doesn't mean on behalf of; it could be an old-fashioned way of saying daughter of Franciszek, but then why would córka be crossed out?
    I agree with this. Personally, I get a strong sense that: "córka [pozostała] po Franciszku", literally "daughter [remaining] after Franciszek", sounds as if her father was called Franciszek and is no longer alive, so she was [born] "of" Franciszek and has remained living after he has died (offspring).

    The theory provided by Henares could be possible, logically speaking, if the writer (Janina) had, consciously or subconsciously, omitted the word "spisywała" but I strongly disagree with this theory, based on the fact that she originally wrote the word "córka" but crossed it out (for what reason??), so Piotr's theory seems much more plausible.
     
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